For this sentence,

"The manner in which the government has handled this whole issue, coupled with other concerns, HAVE/HAS left most people puzzled."


Which one, have or has, should I use???


I think in terms of meaning, it is more accurate to use plural; However, it seems that the manner is the subject, so HAS should be used.


Or is it an example of "X and Y ARE. . ."??? 


For X or Y, should I use is/are? what if y is/are plural but x is not


Thank you 

Has have asked Apr 30 '14 at 20:58 alan New member

1 answer


Thank you so much for your answer! It is very helpful. But still I find it quite strange that two completely identical sentenses can be written with two different verbs.

iF I did not misunderstood you, then i guess the following two sentences are both correct:


1. A clown or two dancing dogs ARE sent to perform at the party.


2. Two dancing dogs or a clown IS sent to perform at the party.


Twisted the sentence a bit... what if one or none? Or two or none? should I use singular or plural verb?

link answered May 06 '14 at 18:37 alan New member

It depends on whether "none" refers to "not one" or "not any." I know, the English language is full of weirdness! Here's a page that explains that point:

Patty TMay 06 '14 at 20:15

add comment

Your answer

Write at least 20 characters

Have a question about English grammar, style or vocabulary use? Ask now to get help from Grammarly experts for FREE.