I have eaten them all

1

I have eaten them all.

 

Thay are all gone.

 

Everything is all my fault.

               . 

               . 

               .

 

I know that the speech part of "all" is really various and we should figure it out by contexts. However, like the examples above, we do not have to waste time trying to figure it out because whether we see it as a pronoun or an adverb meaning "completely", the intended meanings of each sentence are the same or very similar. What do you experts think about it?

 

Thank you so much as usual and have a good day.

asked Sep 06 '12 at 03:09 Hans Contributor

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