I am finished vs. I have finished
Is there a difference between these two sentences and are they both grammatically correct?
'Wait until I am finished washing the dishes' vs. 'Wait until I have finished washing the dishes'
Grammatically, both are correct, but they are linguistically different. The first sentence does, in fact describe the speaker as in the state or condition of being finished, specifically with the task of washing the dishes. This construction is the more passive of the two. The second version describes more accurately the completion of the task as the point of reference for the listener. To put it another way, the first sentence commands the listener to wait until the speaker is in the condition of being finished, the sencond says to wait until the action is completed.
|link||answered Jun 06 '13 at 11:19 David Hopcroft New member|
The first one is incorrect. If you link 'finished' with a linking verb such as 'am', then 'finished' is an adjective. If it is linked with the auxilliary verb 'have', then it is a past participle verb (forming the present perfect tense with 'have'). You are talking about an action (past event continuing into the present at a specific future time); you are not talking describing yourself by using an adjective.
|link comment||answered Jun 06 '13 at 10:18 Ahmad Barnard Expert|
The 2nd one is correct. You have used the perfect tense for a completed action. I would never use the first one myself but it could work if you include 'with' between finished and washing. ie Wait until I am finished with washing the dishes.
|link comment||answered Jun 06 '13 at 20:43 Katejo New member|
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