Changing the word Has to Have when forming an interrogative sentence.
Okay, can someone give me a simple explanation that ESL students will understand for the following scenario? Affirmative sentence: Jack has breakfast every morning at 8am. Interrogative sentence: Does Jack have breakfast every morning at 8am? Why do we change the word has to have - what's the rule? Thanks!
I tell students to look for CLUES in a sentence, especially with verb forms. In your example, do/did/does (helping verbs) are always followed by a base form verb (main verb). Thus 'has' (3rd person singular, present simple) changes to the base form 'have' because of the CLUE 'does'. Other clues for the base form are: modal verbs (can, will, etc.), and also the imperative. In addition, the clues for a past participle are: has/have/had. It helps for students to know verb forms (base, past simple, past and present participles) and their 'clues'.
|link comment||answered Jun 01 '13 at 03:36 Ahmad Barnard Expert|
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