Ex) He is a man who can speak English well.

1

Ex) He is a man who can speak English well.

 

1) He is a man. + He can speak English well.

 

2) He is a man. + And he can speak English well.

 

Which one is a right full sentence of the example?

 

I think 1) is the full sentence of it, but some people said to me, "2) is the one"

However, as far as I know, omissions of conjunctions are related to non defining relative clauses, not defining relative clauses. What do you experts think about it? Thank you so much as usual.

asked Sep 13 '12 at 13:38 Hans Contributor

Again you have forgotten to up vote Mr. Jeff. Do not worry about it. I have up voted him.

sanjaySep 13 '12 at 16:14

I saw it now. There is a time difference between here and the USA.

HansSep 13 '12 at 23:43

And Sanjay, who is in India, seems to stay up late at night. Smile.

Jeff PribylSep 14 '12 at 01:28

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1 answer


4

From how your question is worded, I sense you are still suffering from a misunderstanding of English grammar. You are looking for an original sentence – the “full sentence” – and omitted words. Perhaps you are being taught this idea as a shortcut to aid comprehension. While this “trick” may help you understand the meaning of a sentence, it is not how English grammar actually works. There is no original, or “full sentence”, and nothing has been left out.


So your question – is #1 or #2 the full sentence – is based on a false assumption. A better question would be – which sentence carries the same meaning as the example? If that is the question, both #1 and #2 do.


Here are 7 sentences. Each sentence uses a different grammatical structure. Each sentence has the same basic meaning. No words are omitted from any of the sentences.


John is a man. He can speak English well.
John is a man, and he can speak English well.
John is a man; he can speak English well.
John is a man who can speak English well.
John, an excellent English speaker, is a man.
John, a man, speaks English well.
Speaking English well, John is a man
.

 

I hope this helps.  

link answered Sep 13 '12 at 15:38 Jeff Pribyl Grammarly Fellow

Thank you both for the clear answer and your precious time as usual.

HansSep 14 '12 at 00:04

John is a man, and he can speak English well.-> John is a man, who can speak English well. Can I covert the first to the second as well?

HansSep 14 '12 at 00:06

Almost. There is no comma between man and who. "John is a man who can speak English well" is one of the seven sentences I listed. You add a comma only if the phrase "who can speak ..." is non-restrictive. That means it can be omitted without changing the basic meaning of the sentence. In our examples, you must keep the phrase in order to keep the meaning the same as the other sentences.

Jeff PribylSep 14 '12 at 01:34

But not, "John is a well-spoken Englishman." ;)

mysticeteSep 14 '12 at 03:10

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