What is the difference between 'owing to' and 'due to'?
When Sanjay asked this question back in March, Vinay gave the technically correct answer and Tolley described how the two are currently used -- see the link in Rahul's answer above.
Let me summarize: as a matter of conservative, technical grammar, the two phrases are not equivalent and should not be used interchangeably. As noted in Garner's Modern American Usage (2009), there are contemporary experts who go so far as to say "due to" should not be used in any form. However, as Tolley pointed out, they are, more often than not, used interchangeably today.
Garner's goes on to say, "due to" as an exact synonym for "owing to" is ubiquitous today, but flawed. While this usage is nearing universal acceptance, it has not quite achieved that goal. Garner's further says "because" may often be the better choice in any case.
|link comment||answered Aug 09 '12 at 16:54 Jeff Pribyl Grammarly Fellow|
The same question was asked a number of times earlier as well. Click below link to know more:
|link comment||answered Aug 09 '12 at 10:48 Rahul Gupta Expert|
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