What is the difference between the two?
The hotel has closed and The hotel has been closed.
sanjay
Expert
2 answers 
The first seems to imply it just happened, while the other implies it has been a while. It seems "The hotel is closed" would make more sense for the first one.
The hotel has closed for the day.
The hotel has been closed since last week.
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answered May 04 '12 at 12:18
Courtney
Contributor
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Thanks a lot.
add commentThe first -- "has closed" -- is the Present Perfect tense. Present perfect tense describes an action that happened at an indefinite time in the past or that began in the past and continues in the present.This tense is formed by using has/have with the past participle of the verb. Most past participles end in -ed. Irregular verbs have special past participles that must be memorized.
Courntey's -- "is closed" -- is the Present tense and carries no suggestion about the past.
The second -- "has been closed" -- is also the Present Perfect tense, but using the infinitive "to be" form of the verb -- "been closed". It carries the same sense of time as the first.
The first -- "has closed" -- is an active construction, while the second -- "has been closed" -- is a passive construction. In the first, the hotel is the actor and it is closed. In the second, we are looking for the actor -- who closed the hotel?
Hope this helps.
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edited May 04 '12 at 14:16
Jeff Pribyl
Grammarly Fellow
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Courntey? LOL! Even I misspell my own name on occasion. Thank you for your insights. As I stumble through helping on here, I've been learning things too thanks to all the wonderful contributors on here.
Excellent. Many thanks.
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