He is sure of getting it / to get it


1)He is sure of getting it.

2)He is sure to get it.


I feel like both mean the same but some say the #2 means he will get it in the future but I do not get it. Could you tell me what is the difference between them? And I do not think the difference is about getting it in the future or in the past. What do you experts think? Thank you so much in advance.

asked Mar 17 '14 at 13:31 Hans Contributor

1 answer


Both sentences talk about the future. It might be the very next moment, but he doesn't have it yet in either case. The first sentence (sure of) means he is convinced that he will get it. We don't know what the writer thinks will happen. The second sentence (sure to) means the writer is convinced he will get it, and we don't know what he thinks.

link answered Mar 17 '14 at 14:00 Patty T Grammarly Fellow

Thank you and your answer is so clear and I think that if the subject is "I" like I am sure of getting it and I am sure to get it, I feel like they mean the same because the writer or the speaker is the subject. What do you think?

HansMar 18 '14 at 04:00

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