Past tense or Present Perfect???
I don't know what has gone over me: I have become increasingly more and more acutely aware of the minute details of my writing, and perhaps to my detriment. My latest self-doubt: "I did that for some time" OR "I have done that for some time." I recall you use the present perfect for what was done in the past that isn't specified as to time, though the latter quoted example (i.e., "I did that for some time") seems more acceptable to my native ears--perhaps "some time" can be considered relatively specific to permit the simpel past tense as opposed to the present perfect tense? If you have answer, please be sure to explain why. Thanks a bunch! I may have become too pedantic, and I'm afraid there's no turning back. (Hmm, wondering whether there's a term for it when one who originally saw themselves as a very capable writer--(American) English being their forte--all of a sudden recoils and becomes effectively handicapped in their writing because something just became of them--waking up on the wrong side of the bed or something. It's definitely not writer's block.)
I did that for some time.
I think this implies that whatever 'that' is, you no longer do it. All of the action took place in the past.
I have done that for some time.
This implies that whatever 'that' is, you are still doing it.
|link comment||answered Sep 18 '13 at 13:16 Lewis Neidhardt Grammarly Fellow|
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