Use of past perfect or present tense?


Here's the sentence--I want to convey that confidential information is no longer being conveyed, but the presumption is relevant to date (I want to maintain this linguistic style absent an incontrovertible grammatical error): "Thus, confidential information is presumed to had been conveyed to the group." I do not believe "have been" would be appropriate because the conveyance does not continue to occur, and, what is more, the conveyance occurred long ago--about a decade ago.  In this context, I believe "had been" is appropriate.  (Again, I don't want to change the structure of the sentence, and, with that constraint, is it grammatical?)

asked Sep 16 '13 at 04:27 Heather New member

1 answer


'To have been' is the correct form. This is the use of the infinitive form of the verb 'to have'. There is no infinitive 'to had', so you must stick with 'have'. On the bright side, it conveys the exact meaning you are wanting - that the action happened in the past. This is accomplished with use of the past particple 'been'.

link answered Sep 16 '13 at 11:48 Lewis Neidhardt Grammarly Fellow

Thank you!

HeatherSep 17 '13 at 12:48

add comment

Your answer

Write at least 20 characters

Have a question about English grammar, style or vocabulary use? Ask now to get help from Grammarly experts for FREE.