is this gramaticaly correct

0

hereby states that neither the seller nor the buyer do not know and are not aware of any party who has or alleges to have a right to possesion of the property

asked Mar 28 '11 at 15:16 le New member

1 answer


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Le, 

 

There are three notable errors.  

 

First, you don't have a subject.  What is it that is "hereby stating"?  It should read something that says:  "The contract hereby states that. . .".

 

Second, neither/nor plus "do not know", means that the seller and buyer know because the neither and not know aredouble negatives.  Perhaps you meant to say: "Neither the seller nor the buyer knows or is aware of any party. . .".

 

Third, 'possession' is spelled with two double-'es'.

 

I hope this helps.

 

Kim

link comment answered Mar 29 '11 at 15:46 Kimberly Expert

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