Grammatical analysis of a part of the UK's national anthem


"Send her victorious, happy and glorious" appears to be incomplete. Which of the following two explanation is correct ? Or, is another correct explanation possible? 1) These adjectives lack a noun after them. 2) There is an opinion in that "send" in the old era means "make" working as a causative verb in present day.

asked May 06 '13 at 12:19 coral New member

2 answers


Fascinating question; as a Canadian I had never thought about the grammatical meaning. You should check the Wikipedia entry on 'God Save The Queen', but the relevant passage is here:  It is sometimes claimed that, ironically, the song was originally sung in support of the Jacobite cause: the word "send" in the line "Send him victorious" could imply that the king was absent. However, the Oxford English Dictionary cites examples of '[God] send (a person) safe, victorious, etc.' meaning 'God grant that he may be safe, etc.'. Also there are examples of early eighteenth century Jacobean drinking glasses which are inscribed with a version of the words and were apparently intended for drinking the health of King James II and VII.

Scholes acknowledges these possibilities but argues that the same words were probably being used by both Jacobite and Hanoverian supporters and directed at their respective kings.

link answered May 06 '13 at 12:25 Shawn Mooney Expert

I did not request the history of British kings, but asked the entity of the seemingly lacked noun after these three adjectives.Do you know this?

coralMay 09 '13 at 07:54

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Analyzing poetry for grammar is a lesson in frustration and can only lead to a life of sorrow.

link comment answered May 06 '13 at 13:50 Lewis Neidhardt Grammarly Fellow

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